{"id":12,"date":"2006-04-06T15:54:00","date_gmt":"2006-04-06T15:54:00","guid":{"rendered":"http:\/\/strivetoenter.com\/wim\/?p=12"},"modified":"2006-04-06T15:54:00","modified_gmt":"2006-04-06T15:54:00","slug":"doesnt-1-timothy-13-list-only-males-as-false-teachers","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/mmoutreach.org\/wim\/2006\/04\/06\/doesnt-1-timothy-13-list-only-males-as-false-teachers\/","title":{"rendered":"Doesn&#8217;t 1 Timothy 1:3 list only males as false teachers?"},"content":{"rendered":"<blockquote><p>Q: In WIM you say that 1 Timothy 1:3 &#8220;charge some that they teach no other doctrine&#8221; means people male or female. However isn&#8217;t the technical grammar of &#8220;some&#8221; as singular masculine?<\/p><\/blockquote>\n<p>A: This is an excellent question and I am glad that you asked this. Although 1 Timothy 1:3 has a generic meaning of male or female, the fine points of the grammar show that the Greek is singular masculine. However this grammar does not exclude females.<!--more--><\/p>\n<p>You see this exact same grammar is used multiple times regarding salvation and the general body of Christ and although these passages are also singular masculine, they include both male and female. Let me give you an example. 2 Timothy 3:17 says:<\/p>\n<blockquote><p>&#8220;so the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.&#8221;<\/p><\/blockquote>\n<p>Who is the man of God? The Greek word is anthropos which means human being and it is again a generic term, but the technical grammar is also singular masculine. Now we ask, does the church believe that this verse is only for men or are women included too? Women are included of course and the singular masculine form of the generic word for human being in no way excludes women. Here is another. John 6:51 says:<\/p>\n<blockquote><p>&#8220;I am the living bread that came down out of heaven; if anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever&#8230;&#8221;<\/p><\/blockquote>\n<p>Who is the anyone that Jesus says can partake of him? The Greek term for anyone is a generic term again meaning male or female, and once again the technical grammar is singular masculine. Now we ask, are only males allowed to partake of Jesus? Of course not! The singular masculine again in no way excludes women. So when we go back to 1 Timothy 1:3 we see that the generic term for human beings with the singular masculine is not restricting the false deceived teachers to men. In fact we see a false teacher who is female in chapter 2 and this one Paul says is deceived as Eve was.<\/p>\n<p>One last example.  Matthew 9:38 says:<\/p>\n<blockquote><p>&#8220;Pray ye therefore the Lord of the harvest, that he will send forth laborers into his harvest.&#8221;<\/p><\/blockquote>\n<p>Now who is it that we are to pray for? Are there only to be male laborers in the harvest field? The Greek term for laborers means &#8220;workmen&#8221;. The Greek is in the plural masculine. The church has always believed and taught that all Christians &#8211; male and female are part of the laborers. Should we now say that the plural masculine term here excludes women? Never! I rest my case.<\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>Q: In WIM you say that 1 Timothy 1:3 &#8220;charge some that they teach no other doctrine&#8221; means people male or female. However isn&#8217;t the technical grammar of &#8220;some&#8221; as singular masculine? A: This is an excellent question and I am glad that you asked this. Although 1 Timothy 1:3 has a generic meaning of male or female, the fine points of the grammar show that the Greek is singular masculine. However this grammar does not exclude females.<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":2,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"jetpack_post_was_ever_published":false,"jetpack_publicize_message":"","jetpack_is_tweetstorm":false,"jetpack_publicize_feature_enabled":true,"jetpack_social_post_already_shared":false,"jetpack_social_options":[]},"categories":[5],"tags":[],"jetpack_publicize_connections":[],"yoast_head":"<!-- This site is optimized with the Yoast SEO plugin v20.2.1 - https:\/\/yoast.com\/wordpress\/plugins\/seo\/ -->\n<title>Doesn&#039;t 1 Timothy 1:3 list only males as false teachers? - Women in Ministry<\/title>\n<meta name=\"robots\" content=\"index, follow, max-snippet:-1, max-image-preview:large, max-video-preview:-1\" \/>\n<link rel=\"canonical\" href=\"https:\/\/mmoutreach.org\/wim\/2006\/04\/06\/doesnt-1-timothy-13-list-only-males-as-false-teachers\/\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:locale\" content=\"en_US\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:type\" content=\"article\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:title\" content=\"Doesn&#039;t 1 Timothy 1:3 list only males as false teachers? - Women in Ministry\" \/>\n<meta property=\"og:description\" content=\"Q: In WIM you say that 1 Timothy 1:3 &#8220;charge some that they teach no other doctrine&#8221; means people male or female. 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Matt answered a caller's question regarding women leading in the church by appealing to Titus 1:6 and 1 Timothy 3:2 where it says that a Pastor\/Elder\/Overseer must be \"the husband of one wife\". Matt\u2026","rel":"","context":"In &quot;1 Timothy 2&quot;","img":{"alt_text":"","src":"","width":0,"height":0},"classes":[]},{"id":237,"url":"https:\/\/mmoutreach.org\/wim\/2008\/06\/09\/noodling-with-the-greek-grammar\/","url_meta":{"origin":12,"position":1},"title":"Noodling with the Greek grammar in 1 Timothy 2:15","date":"June 9, 2008","format":false,"excerpt":"While I have made a very strong point of the Greek grammar in 1 Timothy 2:15 with the singular \"she\" and the plural \"they\" (no specific gender for \"they\"), some have been trying hard to wiggle out of the implications that Paul is referring to a specific woman because the\u2026","rel":"","context":"In &quot;1 Timothy 2&quot;","img":{"alt_text":"","src":"","width":0,"height":0},"classes":[]},{"id":2405,"url":"https:\/\/mmoutreach.org\/wim\/2011\/09\/22\/eve-prototype\/","url_meta":{"origin":12,"position":2},"title":"Eve as the outline, pattern and prototype in 1 Timothy 2:14","date":"September 22, 2011","format":false,"excerpt":"This post is the second part of an expansion on the reasons why I believe that 1 Timothy 2:11-15 is about one specific woman and why a general reference to women does not line up with the grammar within the surrounding context.\u00a0 The first points 1 - 4 are discussed\u2026","rel":"","context":"In &quot;1 Timothy 2&quot;","img":{"alt_text":"Eve is the outline on Women in Ministry by Cheryl Schatz","src":"https:\/\/i0.wp.com\/www.mmoutreach.org\/wim\/wp-content\/uploads\/2011\/06\/outline.jpg?resize=350%2C200","width":350,"height":200},"classes":[]},{"id":2241,"url":"https:\/\/mmoutreach.org\/wim\/2010\/08\/10\/1-timothy-215-going-deeper\/","url_meta":{"origin":12,"position":3},"title":"1 Timothy 2:15 going deeper into the results of the prohibition","date":"August 10, 2010","format":false,"excerpt":"1 Timothy 2:15 has been one of the most puzzling verses to decipher throughout church history. 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